Apostolic Ministries of America, Inc.
"A Church of the Lord Jesus Christ of the Apostolic Faith"
"Orthodox Apostolic Doctrine"
|The following are biblical questions and answers based on the teachings of Jesus Christ, the Holy Apostles and Prophets:
Many More FAQ's And Answers Will Be Added In 2005
All answers and the subjects offered on this web site have without a doubt been answered previously by many of the great Apostolic Ministers and are being offered today by other Apostolic ministers. As there can be only one correct answer to each and every question and the spirit must agree, then the material may look the same. This does not in any way imply infringements by any minister against any other minister. But, rather confirms the total closure of the Apostolic Doctrine, as the Spirit of God speaks with a single voice among His Ministers. "But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto peter; (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)" Galatians 2:7-8.
Question: Who was Cain's wife?
Answer: The scripture does not tell us specifically who was Cain's wife. But she definitely was a female human being and not anything else as some are lead to believe. What it does tell us is that "...Cain went out from the presence of the Lord and dwelt in the land of Nod on the East of Eden". It was then that he knew his wife; that is he knew her as a person as well as going in unto her for her to conceive and bare his son Enoch. We have no bible on the length of time that he dwelt in the land of Nod before he met his wife. Men lived many years in those days and were still having children at a much older age (See Genesis 5). Also we do not know the age of Cain when he killed his brother Abel. The scriptures only says, "... in the process of time, it came to pass..." (Gen. 4:3). Therefore, since we do not know these time-frames, we would have to conclude that the woman he met would have to have been a kin such as a sister (daughter of Adam and Eve) or a niece (a daughter of Seth) or some other distant kin since both Adam and Eve and Seth and later generations had sons and daughters. We cannot add to the scriptures and assume anything; lest we add to the scriptures and He reprove us and we be found liars(Prov. 30:6).
Question: Is divine healing being done through God's ministers today?
God is, Was and always will be a healer and He promised to heal them that will believe on Him as the scripture hath said. When He sent the disciples out in Matthew 10:8, He said unto them, "heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give." James 5:14, reads, Is any sick among you? Let him call for the elders of the church; and let them pray over him. anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord: And the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up.
Question: If Eve was not aware of good or evil, then why did she eat of the fruit, and how did she know to be disobedient?
Answer: The scriptures tell us clearly why she took of the fruit which she was commanded not to take; it was because the devil seduced and tricked her into believing that God meant something else than what God had said. She knew what disobedience was just as the one third of angels that were cast out of heaven knew. But they like Eve were seduced into believing something that was contrary to God's commandment. Eve spoke back to the serpent (devil) and told him that they were not allowed to take of the tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil so she knew that this would be wrong.
Question: What does it mean by the "last shall be first and the first last." (Matt. 20:16)
Answer: This scripture has to do with the reward of the righteous and holy at the end of time. If you read the parable of Jesus Christ carefully you will see that some complained because they labored longer than others yet they received a penny just as those that had not labored as long; that is everyone received the same reward. So shall it be in the end, both those that have served the Lord for many years and died and those that served the Lord for a much shorter period of time and died (or may still be living at his coming) will all be given life eternal. That everlasting life is the one penny that Jesus referred to. That is what we are all laboring for, to get that one penny, immortality, life eternal. Therefore, the last(those that served the Lord for a short time) will equal in the reward they receive in the end, to those that are first or served the Lord for many years. In other words, the first shall be equal to the last and the last equal to the first.
Question: What does it mean that God came from Teman and the Holy One from Mount Paran? (Hab. 3:3).
Answer: Many people are confused about this scripture and their carnal minds immediately thinks that this scripture is telling us about a place from which the Almighty God originated and where, perhaps there are other gods. Please, understand this readers, to us there is but one God. He has always been and always will be; had no beginning of days or end of life as it is written in the volume of the book (the bible) concerning Him (Heb 7:3). This scripture is referring to the place from which the voice of God was heard, that is the voice of God was heard from Teman and His voice was heard from the mountain of Paran. The Prophet Habukkuk said "...when I heard, my belly trembled, my lips quivered at the voice..." (Hab. 3:16).
Question: When man was made was he made holy?
Answer: The scriptures tell us that God made a man upright, but he has sought out many inventions(Eccl. 7:29). The scriptures does not specifically say that man was made holy, but what we do know is, as long as he followed the holy commandment given to him while he was in the garden of Eden he was innocent and without sin. Since he was innocent as long as he followed the holy commandment of God to take of all other trees in the garden except the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil, then he walked in God's holy commandment and was holy. This is why we often say that when man took and ate of the tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil he fell from that holy state in which God had made him. Yes, man was made Holy.
Question: How does our spirit agree with the Spirit of God?
Answer: When one receives the Holy Ghost, there are two spirits in one body; the spirit which is in every living man and God (the Holy Ghost). The Son of God, (the body of God) had two spirits in him because when the Son of God died on the cross, he yielded up both the Eternal Spirit (Matt. 27:46) and the breath that is in every natural man (Matt. 27: 50, Job 27:3). The scriptures tell us in Romans 8:16 "The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit that we are the children of God..." That is, the Spirit of God and our spirit will give utterance through us that we are the children of God. That is how the Spirit of God "...beareth witness with or agrees with our spirit. When a man speaks, it is the spirit of the man that speaks or bears witness to a thing. That is why the Apostle John told us in first John 4:1 "...believe not every spirit but try the spirits..." In other words, test, by scriptures, what the prophet is telling or witnessing to you since many false prophets are gone out into the world and their witness is not true. So then, of a truth, we have not received the spirit of the devil but the Spirit of God whereby we cry Abba, Father, God himself speaking, along with our spirit, that we are his offspring
Question: Is forbidding to marry found in the Apostles' Doctrine?
There are certain groups that forbids a minister (or Priest) to marry. This is an error that comes from the depth of hell and practiced by those who are deceived and are being led astray by the devil. God gave the first man Adam, Eve, for a wife. Abraham, Moses, Jacob, Isaac and David all had wives. Peter, the Apostle, was married, also Mary, the mother of Jesus was married and had children. There is no scripture in the Bible that forbids any man from having a wife as long as he gets her lawfully. The Spirit saw this coming and said through the Apostle Paul in the 4th. chapter of 1 Timothy; "Some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron; forbidding to marry..."(1st Timothy 4:1-3). They are deluded and on their way to destruction, even saying that Mary went to haven both soul and body and had no other children but Jesus, which is an unscriptural statement. Matthew 12:47) The Bible says Joseph took Mary and knew her not until she brought fforth her first born. (Matthew 1:24-25) We all know that this means. You will find that forbidden to marry teachings are doctrines of the devil and there is no Bible for any such teachings.
Question: What does it mean not to let the sun go down on your wrath? (Eph. 4:26)
Answer: Many people have quoted this scripture to others believing that the one that is upset should not go to bed in an upset state. This is not what this scripture means. This scripture means that one should not die in sin. The sun goes down on everyone when life ends.
Question: Can saints donate blood and receive blood transfusions?
Answer: Contrary to what many may believe, there is no biblical principle or Law that is against giving blood or receiving a blood transfusion. Today, many people store their own blood before the birth of a child or for other medical treatment they are planning to have. If the individual's Faith is such that they wish to do this then "let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind." (Rom. 14:5) The bible says "for all men have not faith." I encourage the saints of God to rely on God for everything. Receiving a blood transfusion should not be classified as eating blood as some Jehovah witnesses may believe. "Eating" blood is putting it into ones mouth and that is what the Apostles commanded the Gentiles to abstain from in the 15th Chapter of Acts (blood transfusions were not done in the days of the Apostles and therefore could not have been what the Apostle was speaking about).
Question: Should saints be organ donors?
Answer: There is no biblical principle or precept given that would make it a sin to donate ones organs. In other words, where there is no law there is no transgression (Rom. 4:15). You will be judged according to the deeds done in your body while you are living. Your organs are given to another after you are dead. Therefore, you could not be judged for the act of donating your organs nor can you be held accountable for the acts of the person that received any or all of your organs. Also, there is no biblical law against donating an organ while you live. For example, if a father gives a kidney to his son.
Question: Will the Holy Saints of God stand in the Great White Throne judgement to be judged?
Answer: No, the Holy People of God will not stand in the Great White Throne judgement be judged. The scriptures tell us "...For the Lord shall descend from heaven with a shout...and the dead in Christ shall rise first. Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air, and so shall we ever be with the Lord..." I Thess. 4:16-17.
Undoubtedly, some man will say how shall we all appear before the judgement seat of Christ that every one may receive the things done in his body, according as he has done whether it be good or bad? II Cor. 5:10. The answer is found in the I Corinthians 11:31 "For if we would judge ourselves, we shall not be judged". Again the word of the Lord tells us that "...the time is come that judgement must begin at the house of God..." I Pet. 4:17. Therefore, if the people of God examine and judge themselves according to the word of the Lord NOW, they will be counted blessed and holy and to have part in the first resurrection and the change of the church to meet the Lord in the clouds and will forever be with the Lord.
Question: The church mentioned in Acts 7:38, Was it natural or spiritual? Why?
Answer: The church in the wilderness, referred to in Acts 7:38 was a natural church since they received carnal or natural ordinances to follow according to the law of Moses. The Law of the Spirit of Life, Grace and Truth, spotless, redeeming blood from that holy thing (His Son) made by God himself, came by and from Jesus Christ and that would bring in the spiritual or new Testament church. If you notice, the scriptures is referring to "our fathers" or in other words, those Israelites that first received the law of Moses, which he received on mount Sina. The Apostles received holy commandments from the Lord Jesus Christ and he did not give those commandments from mount Sina (or Sinai). Acts 2:2, Gal. 4:24-25.
Question: What are the right hands of fellowship for?
Answer: The right hands of fellowship were given by the Apostles that were in reputation, Peter James and John to two other Apostles, Paul and Barnabas when those in reputation "...perceived the grace that was given unto me (Paul)..." The right hands of fellowship were not given to put Paul and Barnabas in the church since they were already in the church, Acts 13:1-2. They were given because the Apostles, Peter, James and John were in full agreement with the gospel that Paul was preaching to the gentiles. That was the reason that Paul was told to go up to Jerusalem to see the other Apostles...about the gospel he was preaching, not to be "fellowshipped" into the church. If he had not obeyed the God-given revelation he would have been disobedient and would then have run or labored in vain.
The right hands of fellowship are not for saints that may leave one place of worship or minister to go to another place of worship or minister. This is and has been a custom of the Apostolic people. This practice is not biblical and not to be done unless those giving and receiving it have the office of the Apostleship. Some may also argue that Barnabas was not an Apostle. I instruct you to read Acts 14:14 where it is written "...which when the Apostles, Barnabas and Paul..." You should also note that the right hands of fellowship were not given to Titus who was an elder, although he was in the company of Apostles, Barnabas and Paul. If the right hand of fellowship were for elders (that are not also Apostles) then it would have been given to Titus also.
Question: Are tongues a sign for believers (Mark 16:17) or unbelievers (I Cor. 14:22)?
Answer: Speaking in tongues as the spirit of God gives utterance is a sign and evidence regarding the Holy Ghost being given and for edification of the hearers. Similarly, speaking in tongues without the spirit of God giving utterance is a sign for edification, instruction and admonition of both believers and unbelievers.
Now there is a new tongue and an unknown tongue or other tongue. The scriptures tell us that "...these signs shall follow them that believe...they shall speak with new tongues..." Mark 16:17. This means the believer will speak in a tongue that he (or she) does not understand, nor the hearers, since it will be done as the Holy Ghost speaks through the believer. Therefore, this is an unknown tongue and is a sign to the believing hearers that the person speaking in tongues has received the gift of the Holy Ghost (Acts 10:44-46). To the believer this unknown tongue is also a new tongue since he (or she) has never spoke in this unknown tongue before and it is other that his native tongue. The believer is instructed to pray that he may be able to interpret the unknown tongue that he may be able to edify the church (I Cor. 14:12-13). If it is the will of God an unknown or other tongue can be spoken and understood by the hearers as on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:4-8).
Now if an unknown tongue is spoken without the spirit of God giving the utterance, one must interpret the unknown tongue into a known tongue so that the hearers may understand what is said (I Cor. 14:11, 27). So then if God sends an interpreted message to you through men that are of another tongue, then to the hearer, it is a sign or a warning because of the hearers unbelief or disobedience as the scriptures says in I Cor. 14:21. Here tongues would not be a sign for the believer but for the unbeliever.
Question: Does a woman have to cover her head at all times?
Answer: No, a woman does not have to cover her head at all times. The Holy Ghost requires that a woman have her head covered when she is praying or prophesying since if she does either of these things uncovered she dishonors her head which is the man (I Cor. 11:15). The head of every woman is the man. (I Cor. 11:3). Now it is good judgement that all holy woman have their heads properly covered when in public or in the presence of a man that is not her husband since she does not know at what time she may have to pray because of the present circumstances or when the Holy Ghost may move upon her to pray. In either case she is prepared for this good work. If a woman is in the presence of her husband only (as in the home) and they are not in prayer, then it is lawful for her to uncover her head is she so desires. This is because a man has power over the body of his wife and the wife has power over the body of her husband and is so permitted to see his wife in a manner that no other man is lawfully allowed to see (I Cor. 7:4). The head of the woman should also be covered during the time of fasting and prayer.
Question: Is it a sin for the man to cover his head?
Answer: No, it is not a sin for the man to cover his head. It is a sin for the man in the new testament church to cover his head when he is praying or prophesying (I Cor. 11:14). The Prophet Ezekiel was told by the Lord to bind the tire of his head upon him (Eze. 24:17); Moses told Aaron and his son not to uncover their heads, (Lev. 10:6) and Lord gave instruction to Moses concerning the high priest "...he shall not uncover his head..." Lev 21:10. So we see there were times when men were commanded to cover their heads. If this thing was a sin then such a commandment would not have been given by the Lord.
Question: If a man or a woman is married for the second time and the first husband or wife was alive when the second marriage took place but the first husband or wife has since died, does the second marriage then automatically become lawful according to the Law of God (the Bible)?
Answer: No, the second marriage does not become lawful according to the law of God as soon as the first husband or wife dies since the second marriage was contrary to the law of God to start with and was regarded by God as an adulterous relationship. The person in the second marriage would no longer be in an adulterous relationship when the first husband or wife dies but would now automatically be committing and living in fornication the moment the first husband or wife dies. In either case, that individual is in sin and must come out of the relationship or now be lawfully married to the individual that was the second husband or wife if they so desire. The laws of the land in which you live may not recognize the second marriage as adulterous but see it as lawful, but I answer you only according to the far more important Law of God which will judge you in eternity.
Are there some things in the Bible that you just don't understand, but have always wanted to? Write to me for the answer or send me all of your questions via E-mail
Elder Charles Ford Walker
Apostolic Ministries of America, Inc.
P.O. Drawer 39
Titusville, Florida 32781-0039 USA
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